Problem:
Solution:
(Part a)
The closure, associativity, identity properties are obvious. The only thing unclear is why such an operation has multiplicative inverse.
Note that for a fixed a≠0, if x≠y, then ax≠ay because otherwise a(x−y)=0 and that is impossible if both of them are non-zero.
When x varies from 1 to p, there are p different ax values ranging from 1 to p. By the pigeonhole principle one of them must be 1.
(Part b)
Thanks for the hint for using the Lagrange's theorem, we know that the subgroup generated by a have an order s which is a factor of p−1. Now we can write ap−1=aks=(as)k=1k=1.
For myself in the future, I need to explain more why as=1. Consider the following sequence that represent the cyclic subgroup.
a0,a1⋯as−1.
Now it is obvious why as=1
(Part c)
Again, thanks for the hint. It is obvious now if a=0,ap=0=a. If a≠0, part b applies and just multiply both side by a.
(Part d)
What else would that be? ap−a, that has to be 0.
Solution:
(Part a)
The closure, associativity, identity properties are obvious. The only thing unclear is why such an operation has multiplicative inverse.
Note that for a fixed a≠0, if x≠y, then ax≠ay because otherwise a(x−y)=0 and that is impossible if both of them are non-zero.
When x varies from 1 to p, there are p different ax values ranging from 1 to p. By the pigeonhole principle one of them must be 1.
(Part b)
Thanks for the hint for using the Lagrange's theorem, we know that the subgroup generated by a have an order s which is a factor of p−1. Now we can write ap−1=aks=(as)k=1k=1.
For myself in the future, I need to explain more why as=1. Consider the following sequence that represent the cyclic subgroup.
a0,a1⋯as−1.
Now it is obvious why as=1
(Part c)
Again, thanks for the hint. It is obvious now if a=0,ap=0=a. If a≠0, part b applies and just multiply both side by a.
(Part d)
What else would that be? ap−a, that has to be 0.
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